NODE 0987d489Continum of numbers and Turing Machines
Jim choate <ravage@bga.com>Tue, 26 Jul 94 16:50:49 PDT
Hi all,
Just a thought,
Seems to me that a Turing Machine can't simulate a continous section of
R for a simple reason, computers can only work on rational numbers and
a continous section would have irrationals in it.
Take care.
NODE ebf93df8Re: Continum of numbers and Turing Machines
Berzerk <berzerk@xmission.xmission.com>Tue, 26 Jul 94 19:20:03 PDT
On Tue, 26 Jul 1994, Jim choate wrote:
> Seems to me that a Turing Machine can't simulate a continous section of
> R for a simple reason, computers can only work on rational numbers and
> a continous section would have irrationals in it.
Ok, I am kicking myself for saying this, but it is not the data on the tape,
it is the information of the machene itself. It is at most a cardinal
infinity, and even if there are irrational numbers there can't be a
continum of these. It has more to do with there being "steps" than what
the steps are. In a continum machene, you would not have steps or
states. It is not clear if the quantization of time could do anything to
this(like make it bogus). The quantization of spacial objects certainly
makes a limit forbiding continum tapes.
<warning, sci fi follows, don't even start to criticize this, it is too
easy!>
I was thinking you could get a quantum computer with an continum of
states if you did not bind them, which could lead to :
AP nwes: Today sientists at mega labs detonated a quantum computer with
the intent of solving the recorded history of light recieved here on the
earth at that instant back to the distribution of mater at approximatly
10-15 seconds after the big bang. This complements nicely the forward
computation done by a similar explosion of smaller magtude.
How is that for a wacky idea?
NODE 72637b6eRe: Continum of numbers and Turing Machines
Andrew Purshottam <andy@autodesk.com>Wed, 27 Jul 94 11:00:36 PDT
Marvin Minsky's old automata theory text
(something like "Finite and Infinite Machines")
has an intro to the computable reals (or constructable reals?
can't remember) which the interested might like to read.
NODE 9c685095Re: Continum of numbers and Turing Machines
"Perry E. Metzger" <perry@imsi.com>Wed, 27 Jul 94 18:53:37 PDT
Andrew Purshottam says:
> Marvin Minsky's old automata theory text
> (something like "Finite and Infinite Machines")
> has an intro to the computable reals (or constructable reals?
> can't remember) which the interested might like to read.
I'll point out that the countability of the reals (or, rather,
uncountability) is a simple concept -- I've explained it in five
minutes to a twelve year old, so I see no reason why it can't be
quickly explained here. (I haven't paid much attention -- perhaps
someone else has done this already but I haven't noticed it.)
An infinite set is said to be countable if it can be mapped one to one
to the integers. (Actually, to the cardinals, or positive integers, in
most definitions, but it doesn't matter as I'll show in a moment). As
an example, I can map the even positive numbers to the positive
numbers very easily -- use the "divide by two" operator, and I can
map every even positive number to a positive integer, and vice versa.
All integers may be mapped to the positive integers in an equally
simple manner -- start by numbering 0 as 1, 1 as 2, -1 as 3, 2 as 4,
-2 as 5, 3 as 6, and in general all positive n go to 2n and all
negative n go to -2n+1.
It would seem that the rational numbers couldn't be counted, but in
fact they can -- you just have to be clever. Build a table like so
(I've only partially filled it in :-) and think of the row index as the
numerator and the column index as the denominator -- you will swiftly
see that you can number every fraction. (Actually, you overnumber them
in the sense that some numbers get more than one index this way --
fixing this is left as an exercise to the reader...)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 ....
1 1 3 6 10 15 21 28 36
2 2 5 9 14 20 27 35
3 4 8 13 19 26 34
4 7 12 18 25 33
5 11 17 24 32
6 16 23 31
7 22 30
8 29
...
Now, you might think some clever trick could be used to map the reals
into the integers. Unfortunately, you cannot do it. I can prove that
quite easily, by contradiction.
For simplicity, lets just try to map the reals between zero and one to
the integers, and lets consider them expressed as binary numbers.
Imagine that I had built a mapping between this subset of the reals
and the positive integers. Any such mapping implies a list, that is,
that I could build a table like
1 .1010101101010010010010010101001.....
2 .0100001010100010100101001001010010...
3. .11000101001010110100010100010101001....
etc.
I can now construct a number that is not in the table. Take the first
binary digit from the first number in the table, and complement it. That
is the first digit in my constructed number. Take the second digit
from the second number and complement it -- that is the second digit
of the constructed number. Add in the complement of the third digit of
the third, the fourth digit of the fourth, etc. The number I have just
constructed can't be the first number in the imaginary table because
the first digit didn't match. It can't be the second because the
second didn't match. It can't be the third because the third doesn't
match. Indeed, it can't be any of them. Thus, you can't map the reals
to the integers.
The reals are thus in some sense a "bigger" infinite set than the
integers.
Perry
NODE ed91204bContinum of numbers and Turing Machines
"Dietrich J. Kappe" <kap1@wimpy.cpe.uchicago.edu>Wed, 27 Jul 94 20:24:19 PDT
Pretty Good Privacy 2.6ui - Public-key encryption for the masses.
(c) 1990-1993 Philip Zimmermann, Phil's Pretty Good Software. 27 May 94
Date: 1994/07/28 03:23 GMT
You need a pass phrase to unlock your RSA secret key.
Key for user ID "Dietrich J. Kappe <kap1@tao.cpe.uchicago.edu>"
Enter pass phrase:
NODE 92d3b581Continum of numbers and Turing Machines
"Dietrich J. Kappe" <kap1@wimpy.cpe.uchicago.edu>Wed, 27 Jul 94 20:25:50 PDT
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Perry E. Metzger writes:
[Countability proofs deleted...]
For simplicity, lets just try to map the reals between zero and one to
the integers, and lets consider them expressed as binary numbers.
Imagine that I had built a mapping between this subset of the reals
and the positive integers. Any such mapping implies a list, that is,
that I could build a table like
1 .1010101101010010010010010101001.....
2 .0100001010100010100101001001010010...
3. .11000101001010110100010100010101001....
etc.
I can now construct a number that is not in the table. Take the first
binary digit from the first number in the table, and complement it. That
is the first digit in my constructed number. Take the second digit
from the second number and complement it -- that is the second digit
of the constructed number. Add in the complement of the third digit of
the third, the fourth digit of the fourth, etc. The number I have just
constructed can't be the first number in the imaginary table because
the first digit didn't match. It can't be the second because the
second didn't match. It can't be the third because the third doesn't
match. Indeed, it can't be any of them. Thus, you can't map the reals
to the integers.
The reals are thus in some sense a "bigger" infinite set than the
integers.
Small but important correction: the number that you contructed may in
fact be a binary equivalent to one already in the list.
Example:
.0111111...
.1000000...
Claim: For a given real x, there exist at most a finite number of
equivalent binary representations. (In fact, just 2.)
Proof: Left as an excercise.
I think everyone can see how to splice this little lemma into the
proof. Of course, the proof isn't nearly as clean as before, so it may
take more than 5 minutes for a 12 year old (or 12 minutes for a 5 year
old :-).
Dietrich Kappe
kap1@wimpy.cpe.uchicago.edu
- - -finger for PGP public key-
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